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Civil Services Preliminary - 2019 Answer Key with Explanation & Discussion


    Civil Services Preliminary 2019 will decide the fate of lakhs of civil services aspirants.StepUp IAS also wants to be a part of your this beutiful journey.Please visit this page on 2nd June 2019 after 4:30 PM.For Live discussion you can visit our youtube channel or click on youtube tab of this website...You can also click on following links.. StepUp IAS Youtube Videos

    Set B

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    Q1. Consider the following statements:

    1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.

    2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.

    3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 and 3 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 2 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Ans: D

    Agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O emissions from India in 2010, followed by waste water (12%) and residential and commercial activities (6%). Since 2002, N2O has replaced methane as the second largest Greenhouse Gas (GHG) from Indian agriculture.

    Cattle account for 80% of the ammonia production, though their annual growth rate is 1%, due to a stable population.

    The poultry industry, on the other hand, with an annual growth rate of 6%, recorded an excretion of reactive nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016.


    Q2. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?

    (a) Recently discovered uranium deposits

    (b) Tropical rain forests

    (c) Underground cave systems

    (d) Water reservoirs



    Q3: In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

    1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.

    2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.

    3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.

    4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 4 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Ans:  B

    Various component emitted by HCNG

    CO emission decreased by 12.97%

    carbon dioxide (CO2)

    HC emission decreased by 15.84%,

    NOx emission decreased by 1.16%

    PM emission decreased by 9.14%

    HCNG does not eliminate carbon monoxide emissions rather it reduces emissions of CO up to 70%. Delhi to roll out hydrogen-enriched CNG buses next year The Delhi government has tied up with Indian Oil Corporation Limited, a public sector undertaking, to induct 50 HCNG-fuelled buses on a trial basis to help study the technology and its infrastructure requirements Sep 06, 2018 . In its report to the Supreme Court, the EPCA has estimated that fuel for  consumers who pay Rs 42 per kg for CNG, the cost of H-CNG would not be more than Rs 43 per kg. “Clearly, the costs are not prohibitive

    While recommending the use of H-CNG as an alternative fuel, the NITI Aayog-CII Action Plan for Clean Fuel notes that

    physical blending of CNG and hydrogen would make H-CNG more expensive than CNG.

    IOCL’s research & development wing has developed a technology that does away with the need for physical blending. The cost of production is significantly lower than physical blending, the EPCA report says.


    Q4: Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

    (a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth's surface.

    (b) Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.

    (c) The Earth's surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.

    (d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.

    Ans: B

    When a warm and clear day is followed by a cool evening and night, which is clear (cloudless), dew is formed. On a clear day, water evaporates from the warm ground into the atmosphere. When night falls, the ground radiates the day’s warmth into the skies. The ground becomes much cooler, causing the water vapour to condense. This condensed vapour is dew. On a cloudy night, the clouds send the heat back to the ground so the ground never gets cold enough for the dew to be formed.

    Q5. Consider the following statements:

    1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.

    2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Ans: B

    Judgement of the Supreme Court bench

    • The Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act, 2014 and the National Judicial Appointments Commission Act. 2014. is declared unconstitutional and void.

    • The system of appointment and transfers of Judges higher judiciary, as existing prior to the Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act. 2014 (called the 'collegium system'), is declared to be operative.

    • The clauses provided in the amendment are inadequate to preserve the primacy of the judiciary, a basic feature of the constitution.

    • Inclusion of Law Minister in the commission impinged both on the independence of the judiciary and the doctrine of separation of powers between the judiciary and the executive.

    • The bench also rejected for reference to a larger Bench, and for reconsideration of the Second and Third Judges cases.

    • To consider introduction of appropriate measures, if any, for an improved working of the "collegium system".

    Q6: Consider the following statements:

    1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

    2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.

    3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

    4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2

    (b) 3 only

    (c) 3 and 4 only

    (d) 1, 3 and 4

    Ans:-  C

    Section 3 (1) of the Judges Inquiry Act says that the speaker of the Lok Sabha or, as the case may be, the chairman of the Rajya Sabha may – after consulting such persons, if any, as he thinks fit and after considering such materials, if any, as may be available to him – has the power to either admit the motion or refuse to do so. Article 124(4) talks about incapacity and proved misbehavior but does not define

    Q7:  The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime minister ship of

    (a) Jawaharlal Nehru

    (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri

    (c) Indira Gandhi

    (d) Morarji Desai

    Ans:  A

    Why it was asked : The government is planning to bring an ordinance to overturn the Supreme Court verdict putting safeguards on arrests under the of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act and subsequently introduce a bill to insulate it from further judicial scrutiny. The government is likely to introduce the bill in monsoon session of Parliament to incorporate the legislation in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution, laws under which cannot be challenged in courts. Through the ordinance, the government will reintroduce provisions of the Act which it feels were diluted by the Supreme Court verdict in March this year. The “dilution" triggered massive protests by various Dalit and political outfits, during which nearly a dozen people were killed. “While the bill is a permanent arrangement to ensure that the SC/ST Act’s provisions are not diluted again, the ordinance is an interim arrangement to overturn the ruling," a senior government functionary explained.

    Q8: Consider the following statements:

    1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.

    2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.

    3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Ans: A

    1 May 1973

    The Indira Gandhi administration nationalized coal mining in phases – coking coal mines in 1971–72 and non-coking coal mines in 1973. With the enactment of the Coal Mines (Nationalization) Act, 1973, all coal mines in India were nationalized on 1 May 1973. Now after 2015 coal blocks are allocated through public auction / public allocation  India is not self sufficient in coal production

    Q9:  Consider the following statements:

    1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.

    2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.

    3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 3 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Ans: A

    By elimination method , eliminating 3rd statement , The law does not clearly define what constitutes an office of profit but the definition has evolved over the years with interpretations made in various court judgments.

    Q10:  Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

    (a) Third Schedule

    (b) Fifth Schedule

    (c) Ninth Schedule

    (d) Twelfth Schedule

    Ans: B

    Why it was asked?

    The Union Cabinet Chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has given approval to the declaration of Scheduled Areas in respect of Rajasthan under Fifth Schedule to the Constitution of India by rescinding the Constitution Order (C. O.)114 dated 12th February 1981 and promulgation of a new Constitution Order.

    The promulgation of new C. O. will ensure that the Scheduled Tribes of Rajasthan will get benefits of protective measures available under the Fifth Schedule to the Constitution of India.

    The Rajasthan Government has requested for extension of Scheduled Areas in the State of Rajasthan under Fifth Schedule to the Constitution of India.


    The Scheduled Tribes residing in Banswara, Dungarpur, Pratapgarh, and partial areas of Udaipur, Rajsamand, Chittorgarh, Pali and Sirohi districts of Rajasthan will get benefits of protective measures available under the Fifth Schedule to the Constitution of India.

    The areas comprising of 3 complete districts namely,Banswara, Dungarpur, Pratapgarh; 9 complete tehsils, 1 complete block and 46 complete gram panchayats covering 227 villages in district Udaipur, Rajsamand, Chittorgarh, Pali and Sirohi of Rajasthan, would be included in the Scheduled Areas in the State of Rajasthan.

    No additional funds are required as to be expended on account of declaration of Scheduled Areas.


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    Q11:   Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of

    (a) anti-malarial drug

    (b) blodiesel

    (c) pulp for paper industry

    (d) textile fibre

    Ans: D

    Nature never fails to surprise us. In many parts of the world, natural resources are the only source of livelihood opportunities available to people. They can be in the form of wild shrubs like Daphne papyracea and Daphne bholua (paper plant) that are used to make paper or Gossypium spp (cotton) that forms the backbone of the textile industry.

    Q12. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?

    1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location

    2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location

    3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Ans: D

    Oceansat-2 is used to measure chlorophyll. Cartosat is used to measure green house gas emission by rice. INSAT-3D measure Land surface temp Why asked in upsc :

    Q13.  Consider the following States:

    1. Chhattisgarh

    2. M dhya Pradesh

    3. Maharashtra

    4. Odisha

    With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?

    (a) 2-3-1-4

    (b) 2-3-4-1

    (c) 3-2-4-1

    (d) 3-2-1-4

    Ans: C

    Forest Report 2017

    Why asked : India has recorded a one percent jump (8,021 square km) in overall forest and tree cover between 2015 and 2017 despite population and livestock pressures, even as the green footprint in the northeast region shrunk by 630 square km, according to the latest India State of Forest Report (ISFR).

    Based on satellite data analysis, the biennial assessment – conducted by the Forest Survey of India (FSI) and released by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) – has put the total forest and tree cover at 802,088 square km, which is 24.39 percent of the geographical area of the country. The total forest cover is 708,273 square km, which is 21.54 percent of the total area of the country. Between 2015 and 2017, India has added 6,778 square km of forest cover and extended 1, 243 square km of tree cover. The 2017 report, which is the 15th State of Forest survey, maps green cover across 633 districts in place of 589 districts that were considered for the previous edition.  According to the Ministry, India has shown an increasing trend in the forest and tree cover, in comparison to the global trend of decreasing forest cover during the last decade. It highlighted that the country is “ranked 10th in the world, with 24.4 percent of land area under forest and tree cover, even though it accounts for 2.4 percent of the world surface area and sustains the needs of 17 percent of human and 18 percent livestock population.” The present report underlines an actual increase of 86.89 square km of forest cover in all the tribal districts of India. Mangrove cover, which is 0.15 percent of the area of the country, has shown an improvement with a gain of 181 square km as compared to the 2015 assessment. Forest cover in hill districts expanded by 754 square km.

    Q14. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of "methane hydrate"?

    1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.

    2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.

    3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Ans:  D

    Considering that methane hydrates only form under very specific conditions, it is conceivable that global warming, which as a matter of fact includes warming of the oceans, could affect the stability of gas hydrates.

    After an average residence time of about a decade, methane is oxidized into carbon dioxide and water vapor through chemical reactions with hydroxyl radicals (OH). This atmospheric removal process may be weakening, though, possibly because OH levels are declining due to reactions with other anthropogenic pollutants.

    Q15. Consider the following:

    1. Carbon monoxide

    2. Methane

    3. Ozone

    4. Sulphur dioxide

    Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

    (c) 1 and 4 'only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Ans: C

    What kind of pollution does a biomass burner emit?

    Burning biomass emits large amounts of pollutants, just like burning other solid fuels such as coal. Burning organic material emits particulate matter (PM), nitrogen oxides (NOx), carbon monoxide (CO), sulfur dioxide (SO?), lead, mercury, and other hazardous air pollutants (HAPs).

    As the new season of crop burning gets under way, it does raise the inevitable question: what will be its impact on the air quality and people’s health? The IARI study estimates that in 2008-09, crop residue burning released 149.24 million tonnes of carbon dioxide (CO2), over 9 million tonnes of carbon monoxide (CO), 0.25 million tonnes of oxides of sulphur (SOX), 1.28 million tonnes of particulate matter and 0.07 million tonnes of black carbon. Our analysis shows that PM emissions from crop burning in one year is more than 17 times the total annual particulate pollution in Delhi from all sources—vehicles, industries, garbage burning, etc. Similarly, the total national annual emission for CO2 from crop residue burning is more than 64 times the total annual CO2 pollution emission in Delhi.



    Bordering country

    1. Adriatic Sea


    2. Black Sea


    3. Gaspian Sea


    4. Mediterranean Sea


    5. Red Sea


    Q16. Consider the following pairs:

    Which of the pair given above are correctly matched

    (a) 1, 2 and 4 only

    (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

    (c) 2 and 5 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    Ans: B


    Q17.  Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?

    (a) China

    (b) India

    (c) Myanmar

    (d) Vietnam

    And: B

    Q18: Consider the following pairs:



    1. Bandarpunch


    2. Bara Shigri


    3. Milam


    4. Siachen


    5. Zemu


    Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    (a) 1, 2 and 4

    (b) 1, 3 and 4

    (c) 2 and 5

    (d) 3 and 5

    Ans: A

    Milam Glacier is a major glacier of the Kumaon Himalaya. It is located in the tehsil of Munsiyari, part of the Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand, India, about 15 kilometres (9 mi) northeast of Nanda Devi.


    Q19. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

    (a) pesticides in agriculture

    (b) preservatives in processed foods

    (c) fruit-ripening agents

    (d) moisturising agents in cosmetics

    Ans: A

    Unlike relatively low toxicity medicines commonly used for self-poisoning in the West, HHPs are typically lethal if ingested. This means that fatality of self-poisoning is much higher in agricultural communities than in industrialised countries, with resulting high rates of suicide. A large proportion of pesticide suicides are impulsive, with a person contemplating suicide for less than 10 minutes. Most persons who engage in suicidal behaviour do not want to die, with self-harm serving as a response to psychosocial stressors. If a person is prevented from using a highly lethal method, they may use a method with lower lethality, with an increased chance of survival, or the suicidal impulse may pass. Surviving a suicidal period allows the person to find support from family, community, and medical/psychological services and other ways to deal with the stress.

    Policy initiatives to prevent pesticide related suicide    

    At the Centre for Pesticide Suicide Prevention (CPSP), a research and policy initiative of the University of Edinburgh, UK, we are trying to address the problem of pesticide suicides. Formed in 2017, the centre aims to substantially reduce the global number of suicides that occur after intentional ingestion of pesticide.

    In its project in India, CPSP aims to identify the HHPs currently responsible for the majority of pesticide suicides. The organisation plans to collect clinical and pesticide data for pesticide poisoned patients, after due obtaining due permissions, and present to 22 hospitals spread across rural India. This data will be analysed and presented to India’s pesticide regulators in India t help them make informed decisions.


    Q20. Consider the following statements:

    1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.

    2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.

    3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Ans: C

    Wetland conservation has been accorded a high priority in India. Since 1987, the National Wetlands Conservation Programme of India has been financially supporting wetland conservation activities all over India. Under the Programme 115 wetlands have been identified for conservation and management till date. India is also a party to the Ramsar Convention under which 25 wetlands from India are included in the list of wetlands of international importance.


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    Q21. Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of:

    (a) Chalukya

    (b) Chandela

    (c) Rashtrakuta

    (d) Vijayanagara

    Ans: D


    The temple building activity of the Vijayanagar rulers produced a new style, called the Vijayanagar style. Though often characterised as Gravida style, it had its own distinct features.


    • The large number and prominence of pillars and piers and the complicated manner. The horse was the most common animal to be depicted on the pillars. They have a mandapam or open pavilion with a raised platform, general ly meant for seating the deity on special occasions.

    • These temples also have a kalyana mandapam with elaborately carved pillars. In the Vijayanagar temples the central part was occupied by the garbhagriha-the sanctum eel I where the presiding deity was installed. Amman shrine was meant for the consort of the god.


    Q22. Consider the following statements:

    1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'.

    2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.

    3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 1 and 2 only

    (c) 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Ans:  B

    Iqta System• The Iqtadari was a unique type of land distribution and administrative system evolved during the sultanate of Iltutmish.• Under this system, the entire empire was very evenly divided into several large and small tracts of land, called the Iqtas.  • These plots of land were assigned to the various nobles, officers and soldiers for the purpose of easy and flawless administration and revenue collection. • The Iqtas were transferable, i.e., the holders of Iqtas-Iqtadars-were transferred from one region to other every three to four years.  • The holders of small Iqtas were individual troopers. They had no administrative responsibilities. • Muhammad of Ghur in 1206 A.D. the able king was the first to introduce the Iqta system in India, but it was lltutrnish who gave it an institutional form. The Iqtadari system witnessed numerous changes during the Sultanate period. Initially, Iqta was a revenue-yielding piece of land which was assigned in lieu of salary. However, during Firuz Shah Tughlaq's reign,in the year  1351 A,D, it became hereditary.

    Local Administration

    • Local administration was vague and undefined and basically traditional system.

    • The provinces in this period were divided into 6 parts headed by shiqda

    • The main functions to maintain law and order and protect people against oppression of zamindars and had to perform military obligation.

    • The Shiqs were further divided into parganas and had different officials some of which were-

    1. Amil- officers who collected land revenue and other taxes

    2. Mushrif

    3. Hazamdars- treasurers who kept the finances in control.

    4. Qazi-Civil officials, who maintained developmental records.

    5. Shiqdar-Criminal official and law makers.

    6. Kotwal-Police head under shiqdar.

    Officers of the Mughal Empire (Centre)

    Central Officers



    Head of revenue department; but reduced power as compared to Sultanate


    Responsible for all income and expenditure; control over Khalisa & Jagir

    Mir Bakshi

    Headed military department, nobility, information and intelligence



    Q23.  Consider the following statements:

    1. Saint Nimbarka was a contem-porary of Akbar.

    2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Ans:  D


    Q24: With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:

    1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'.

    2. In Lord Chelmsford's 'War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.

    3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 1 and 3 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Ans:-  B

    Q25:  With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:


           Position held

    1.     Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru

          President, All India Liberal Federation

    2.    K. C. Neogy

         Member, The Constituent Assembly

    3.    P. C. Joshi

         General Secretary, Communist Party of India

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 1 and 2 only

    (c) 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Ans: D


    Q26: With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?

    (a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.

    (b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.

    (c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.

    (d) Tansen invented many Ragas.

    Ans: A

    Titles to Tansen

    Tansen was the title given to him by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior. Tansen was a court musician in the darbar of Raja Ramachandra of Bandavagarh (Rewa). When Akbar heard of his prodigious talent, he sent a ‘firman’ to the king asking for Tansen and made him one of the Navaratnas in his court. He gave him the title of ‘Mian’.


    Q27:  Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?

    (a) Humayun

    (b) Akbar

    (c) Jahangir

    (d) Shah Jahan

    Ans:- D


    Q28: Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?

    (a) Manas National Park

    (b) Namdapha National Park

    (c) Neora Valley National Park

    (d) Valley of Flowers National Park

    Ans:- B


    Q29: Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the

    (a) Department of Science and Technology

    (b) Ministry of Employment

    (c) NITI Aayog

    (d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

    Ans: c


    Q30. On 21st June, the Sun

    (a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

    (b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle

    (c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator

    (d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

    Ans: - B

    Please go through the link:


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    Q31.  With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?

    1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.

    2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Ans: A

    The Jagirdar collected the revenue through his own officials like Karkun, Amir and Fotedar. The imperial bureaucracy kept a vigilant watch over the Jagirdars. The Diwan of the Suba saw to it that the Jagirdars never harassed the peasants for excess payment. From the 20th year of the reign of Akbar, an Amir was posted in the Subha to see that the Jagirdars strictly implemented the royal orders.


    Q32:  With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?

    (a) The ceiling "laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.

    (b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.

    (c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.

    (d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.

    Ans: B


    Q33: The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the

    (a) International Monetary Fund

    (b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development

    (c) World Economic Forum

    (d) World Bank

    Ans: C

    At the World Economic Forum’s Centre for the New Economy and Society, the new home of the Global Competitiveness Report, we provide a platform for leaders to understand and anticipate emerging economic and social trends, and to adapt policies and practices to our rapidly evolving context. This report is complemented by a range of other benchmarking tools as well as frontier insights on the emerging contours of the new economy and society. Importantly, the Centre also aims to serve as an accelerator for newly emerging solutions, experiments and pilots led by the public and private sectors in areas such as designing new industrial policy, closing skills gap, developing new standards for business, and preparing for the future of work. This combination allows policy-makers, business and other stakeholders to combine insight and action into accelerating change, and we invite leaders to engage with our platform.


    Q34. Consider the following statements about 'the Charter Act of 1813':

    1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.

    2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.

    3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Ans:  A

    • This Act asserted the Crown’s sovereignty over British possessions in India.

    • Company’s rule and trade monopoly in India was extended to another 20 years. Monopoly was ended except for the trade in tea and with China.

    • It empowered the local governments to tax people subject to the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

    • The company’s dividend was fixed at 10.5%.

    • The Act gave more powers for the courts in India over European British subjects.

    • Another important feature of this act was to grant permission to the missionaries to come to India and engage in religious proselytization. The missionaries were successful in getting the appointment of a Bishop for British India with his headquarters at Calcutta in the provisions of the Act.

    • The act provided for a financial grant towards the revival of Indian literature and the promotion of science.

    • The company was also to take up a greater role in the education of the Indians under them. It was to set aside Rs.1 Lakh for this purpose.


    Q35: With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:

    1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.

    2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Ans: C

    Q36: Consider the following pairs:



    1. All India Anti-Untouchability League

      Mahatma Gandhi

     2. All India Kisan Sabha

    Swami Sahajanand Saraswati

      3. Self-Respect Movement

      E. V. Ramaswami Naicker

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 1 and 2 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Ans:  D

    Q37. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?

    (a) Chanhudaro

    (b) Kot Diji

    (c) Sohgaura

    (d) Desalpur

    Ans: C


    Q38: In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?

    (a) Kanganahalli

    (b) Sanchi

    (c) Shahbazgarhi

    (d) Sohgaura

    Ans:  A


    Kanaganahalli is about 3 km from Sannati. An important Buddhist site, the place where an ancient Buddhist Mahastupa site found. It is on the left bank of the Bhima river[1] in Chitapur taluk, Gulbarga District in Karnataka, India. Nalwar is the nearest Railway station about 19 km from Kanaganahalli. The Buddhist site about 2.5 km from Chandrala Parameshwari temple of Sannati


    Q39:  Consider the following:

    1. Deification of the Buddha

    2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas

    3. Image worship and rituals

    Which of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 1 and 2 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Ans: D

    Compassion can be tangibly used by Mahayana practitioners in the transfer of merit to all sentient beings, which is accumulated through devotional practice. Wisdom can be used to transcend the human condition via the conviction that all beings contain the Buddha seed so can, therefore, become a Buddha. The basis of the Bodhisattva vow is the six paramitas (perfections):

    • generosity (dana)

    • morality (sila)

    • patience (ksanti)

    • courage (virya)

    • knowledge (jhana or dhyana)

    • and intuitive insight (prajna).

    In early Buddhism, there were ten paramitas, and later in the Mahayana, they were increased again to ten to match the ten stages (bhumi) of a Bodhisattva’s spiritual progress. Liberating or saving those who were lost or suffering becomes the sole life-purpose of those who take this Bodhisattva vow, even today.

    Places of worship

    Another feature of Mahayana Buddhism is the presence of stupas – religious towers or domes which evolved from prehistoric burial mounds and eventually had tall spires known as pagodas, common structures found throughout Asia.


    Q40: With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?

    (a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.

    (b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.

    (c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.

    (d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.

    Ans: A

    Vishti, a kind of tax which was to be given in the form of physical labour was mainly forced upon Peasants.

    Katuliya also mentions the Vishti. But the Vishti was practiced during the Gupta and post-Gupta period. After the Gupta period, the shudras became peasants as well. So the state forced Vishiti upon shudra and vaishya peasants who had to work in the fields of kings and their fuedatories and for the army without any wages.


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    Q41: Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the 'New World' and introduced into the 'Old World'?

    (a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber

    (b)Tobacco,  cotton and rubber.

    (c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane

    (d) Rubber, coffee and wheat

    Ans: A


    Q42: Consider the following statements:

    1. Asiatic lion is naturally found III India only.

    2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.

    3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Ans:-  B

    Q43:  Consider the following pairs

    Famous place








    Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Ans: - A

    Use elimination method:

    Hampi, also referred to as the Group of Monuments at Hampi, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in east-central Karnataka, India.[1] It became the centre of the Hindu Vijayanagara Empire capital in the 14th century.[2] Chronicles left by Persian and European travellers, particularly the Portuguese, state Hampi was a prosperous, wealthy and grand city near the Tungabhadra River, with numerous temples, farms and trading markets.


    Q44. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because

    (a) poverty rates vary from State to State

    (b) price levels vary from State to State

    (c) Gross State Product varies from State to State

    (d) quality of public distribution varies from State to State

    Ans: C*(Answer in doubt)


    Q45: In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?

    (a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions

    (b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones

    (c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth

    (d) Reducing the global warming

    Ans: D

    Sulfate aerosols are mixtures of solid or liquid particles that include sulfuric acid. The particles are a few microns in size. Most sulfate aerosols exist as a haze in the tropo-sphere, the layer of the atmosphere that goes from the ground up to about 9 miles (15 km). These sulfate Aerosols start as emissions from burning fossil fuels and last only a few weeks. Tropospheric sulfate aerosols act as condensation nuclei that cause cloud cover to increase. However, there is agreement that sulfate aerosols in the stratosphere scatter radiation coming from the sun and absorb terrestrial (from Earth) radiation, causing a cooling effect.


    Q46: In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?

    (a) Extraction of rare earth elements

    (b) Natural gas extraction technologies

    (c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles

    (d) Waste-to-energy technologies

    Ans: D


    Q47: Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

    (a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve

    (b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park

    (c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahme-swaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park

    (d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve

    Ans: A


    Q48:  Consider the following statements:

    1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.

    2. Some species of fish are herbivores.

    3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.

    4. Some speeies of snakes are viviparous.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    a)     1 and 3 only

    b)    2, 3 and 4 only

    c)     2 and 4 only

    d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

    Ans: D

    Q49:  Consider the following pairs:


             Naturally found in

    1. Blue-finned Mahseer

             Cauvery River

      2. Irrawaddy Dolphin

             Chambal River

     3. Rusty-spotted Cat

            Eastern Ghats

    Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Ans: C

    oceanic dolphin living in brackish water near coasts, river mouths and in estuaries in South and Southeast Asia

    Found in – Ganges, Mekong and Irrawaddy river system

    habitat range — from the Bay of Bengal to New Guinea and the Philippines

    It is slaty blue to slaty gray throughout, with the underparts slightly paler

    Q50:  Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into environment?

    (a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.

    (b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.

    (c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.

    (d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.

    Ans: A

    Microbeads have become so ubiquitous that an estimated 808 trillion pieces swirl down American drains every day. When this plastic-laden wastewater goes through treatment plants, about 99 percent of the beads settle into sludge, which is often used as fertilizer.


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